adverse drug reaction

A 72-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old man with hypertension is started on a medication that blocks the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). What is the most common side effect of this class of drugs?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin glargine, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 2.0 mg/dL), potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 350 mg/g. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his medication regimen to help manage his blood pressure and proteinuria. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL and a potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. Her recent blood tests show a potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing her hyperkalemia?

A 40-year-old patient with PTSD is started on sertraline but develops sexual dysfunction as a side effect. What is the next step in management?

A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed amlodipine. He returns after two weeks complaining of significant ankle edema. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension and left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. His blood pressure is well-controlled, but he develops a persistent, dry cough that is affecting his sleep and quality of life. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation 5 days ago. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old man with PTSD is experiencing severe nightmares despite being on an SSRI. What medication can be added to target this symptom?

A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with confusion and muscle weakness. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Initial laboratory results show: Sodium 120 mmol/L (Normal: 135-145 mmol/L), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (Normal: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L), Chloride 90 mmol/L (Normal: 95-105 mmol/L). What is the most likely cause of her hyponatremia?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (221 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his treatment regimen to help manage his blood pressure and provide renal protection. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory tests reveal a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL (274 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 28-year-old patient with autism spectrum disorder is prescribed risperidone for aggressive behavior. His parents report significant weight gain. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 65-year-old patient recently started on warfarin for deep vein thrombosis presents with a painful, expanding skin lesion on their leg. They report the lesion appeared suddenly and has worsened over the past 24 hours. INR is 2.8. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A 78-year-old male presents with persistent vomiting and epigastric pain. He reports a history of NSAID use for chronic arthritis. An X-ray is performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely complication associated with this finding?

An 82-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and a recent hospitalisation for pneumonia was discharged 5 days ago on warfarin 5mg daily. She presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing pain and a rapidly evolving lesion on her right lower leg over the past 48 hours. She denies trauma. Her vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, Temp 36.8°C. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown in the image on her right anterior lower leg. Her INR today is 4.5. She has no known history of protein C or S deficiency. Considering the patient's history, current medication, laboratory result, and the clinical appearance depicted, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward following an episode of syncope. Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide, and osteoarthritis, managed with regular ibuprofen. An ECG reveals a prolonged QTc interval of 520 ms. She denies any family history of sudden cardiac death or prolonged QT syndrome. Her electrolytes are within normal limits except for a potassium level of 3.4 mmol/L (normal range 3.5-5.0 mmol/L). Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient?

A 68-year-old woman recently started on warfarin for a pulmonary embolism presents with a painful, rapidly expanding purpuric lesion on her thigh, which developed two days ago. Her INR is 2.5. She has no history of trauma to the area. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most likely underlying pathophysiological process?

A 22-year-old lady was wrongly given a B12 prescription for another patient. The error was noticed later at the pharmacy. What is the next step?

A 40-year-old patient with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. His GP recommends regular monitoring. What parameters should be monitored?

A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is prescribed risperidone for manic episodes. She develops tremors and rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. After a few weeks, he develops gynecomastia and galactorrhea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and a diffuse rash. She recently started taking a new medication for her epilepsy. On examination, she is febrile at 38.2°C, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The rash is erythematous and involves the trunk and extremities, with some areas of desquamation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with eosinophilia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed a new medication. He reports experiencing a persistent dry cough since starting the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?

A patient on warfarin presents with leg pain. INR is 3.5. Given the image, what is the MOST appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?

A 62-year-old male presents with bilateral breast enlargement for 6 months. He denies pain, discharge, or skin changes. He reports taking saw palmetto for BPH. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is on risperidone and develops QT prolongation on ECG. What is the next step?

A 68-year-old patient on warfarin for a recent DVT presents with a painful, rapidly expanding skin lesion on their leg that started 48 hours ago. Their INR is 2.9. Given the clinical context and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A 68-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation 5 days ago. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a painful, rapidly expanding lesion on her right lower leg that began two days ago, shortly after her warfarin dose was increased. Her vital signs are stable, and her INR is within the therapeutic range. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 55-year-old man presents with the condition shown. He reports taking spironolactone for hypertension. What is the MOST appropriate next step?